Based on what you said, "#1" is far more likely to be the father. Pre-ejaculate itself does not contain any sperm. Sperm may be inside the urethra if a man ejaculated recently and did not urinate since. If he urinated since he last ejaculated, there is no sperm at all. Pregnancy is very uncommon from pre-ejaculate and the urethra would have to contain sperm at the same time. A woman would also have to be ovulating and engage in unprotected intercourse with ejaculation.
It's up to you whether to take the test or not, as nobody can give you a 100% accurate answer.
Best,
Susan
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Hello Rjwedge
Thank you for writing!
Based on what you said, "#1" is far more likely to be the father. Pre-ejaculate itself does not contain any sperm. Sperm may be inside the urethra if a man ejaculated recently and did not urinate since. If he urinated since he last ejaculated, there is no sperm at all. Pregnancy is very uncommon from pre-ejaculate and the urethra would have to contain sperm at the same time. A woman would also have to be ovulating and engage in unprotected intercourse with ejaculation.
It's up to you whether to take the test or not, as nobody can give you a 100% accurate answer.
July 27, 2018 - 6:53amBest,
Susan
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